Posted: November 16th, 2015
Private Equity
Complete first nine statements, and provide an explanation and an example.
1) The pre-money (intuitively: the firm value prior to the transaction) valuation is / is not always non-negative.
2) The pre-money valuation depends on / does not depend on the term-sheet.
3) Disregarding taxes and the time value of money, if a fund has clawback provision, the deal-by-deal method of calculating carried interest results in the same/higher/lower cash flows to the GP and LP.
4) All else equal, a management buyout of a firm typically delivers higher/lower returns to the holders of the firm’s debt than a leveraged buyout transaction.
5) (A.5) In a tax-driven LBO transaction, the ratio of the estimated mean of equity returns and the estimated volatility of equity returns (also known as the Sharpe Ratio) is higher/lower/equal after the transaction than before.
6) In a tax-driven LBO transaction, the ratio of the estimated mean of equity returns and the estimated volatility of equity returns (also known as the Sharpe Ratio) is higher/lower/equal after the transaction than before.
7) “Carry” is a compensation mechanism that does / does not aligns LPs and GPs well
8) If one raises more capital in a transaction (everything else being equal), then the post-money valuation increases/decreases but the pre-money valuation stays the same.
9) An above average multiple on one’s invested capital always/sometimes/never implies an above average IRR.
10) Large LPs should get better/worse terms than small LPs when negotiating a contract with the GP.
11) In an LBO setting, increasing leverage increases/decreases/does not affect the return for the Equity investors
12) In an LBO setting, increasing leverage increases/decreases/does not affect the return for the firm’s creditors (debtholders before the LBO)
13) In an LBO setting, increasing leverage increases/decreases/does not affect the return for the selling shareholders.
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